> Work through the possible implications...
> (1) if YHWH appeared in Paul's version of Joel 2:32LXX, but
> he dictates "KYRIOS" when he quotes the verse in Rom.
> 10:13, a passage where KYRIOS has Jesus as a referent due
> to 10:9-10, 14.
> (2) if YHWH appeared in Paul's version of the LXX, and he
> also wrote YHWH in Rom. 10:13 in reference to Jesus.
> Later copyists change YHWH to KYRIOS throughout the NT.
This is a very clear example, and the dilemma to Jehovah's Witnesses is
In the JW New World Translation, you fill find the passages translated
Ro 10:13 "For "everyone who calls on the name of Jehovah will be
As you can see, JWs feel free to ignore the immediate context, like vs
9, here again from the NWT:
Ro 10:9 "For if you publicly declare that 'word in your own mouth,'
that Jesus is Lord, and exercise faith in your heart that God raised
him up from the dead, you will be saved."
As non-Trinitarians, I think they would have a better case if they
indeed translated KYRIOS in Rom 10:13 as "Lord". They will anyway have
to face the problem that NT writers frequently applied titles and
prophecies directed at YHWH on Christ. The position is certainly not as
indifensible as some trinitarians think, considering that Christ is a
"reflection" of God and, the one in which all God's promises received
their "yes." The endless christological discussions are muddled waters