I had always understood that the first corrector of Sianaticus was the original
scribe, but Aland (in the introduction to the NA27, p. 48*) dates the first
corrector "4th-6th century." Am I wrong about the first corrector being the
original scribe? Or is Aland regarding several different correctors/hands
together under the 1st corrector sign?
Further: if the first corrector of Sianaticus *was* the original scribe, what
value is there in differentiating between the original hand and the first
corrector when they differ? Shouldn't it be clear that the variant was a
scribal error, corrected when the scribe checked his copy against the exemplar,
and thus useless for determining the better reading, etc.?
Grace and peace,
Perry L. Stepp, Baylor University