Ephesians 1:4-5

Jim Beale (beale@q.continuum.net)
Sat, 6 Apr 1996 14:37:04 -0500

I notice that NAS connects the EN AGAPH at the end of Eph. 1:4 with the
thought which begins in 1:5, giving the reading, "that we should be holy
and without blame before Him. In love He predestined us..." whereas the
NKJV connects EN AGAPH with the preceding clause, giving the reading "that
we should be holy and without blame before him in love, having predestined
us ..."

It seems more natural to me to connect the EN AGAPH with the thought
expressed in verse 4, and to start a new thought with verse 5. Is there a
good reason for rendering it this way?

I also wonder about the translation of PROORISAS in NASB as a simple past
tense, when it is a participle. Isn't the NKJV more correct when it
translates it as "having predestined?"

(I'm not slamming the NAS either, I like it alot! :-)

Thanks for helping me to learn.

Jim Beale