Re: Finite verbs

mfox@ms.rose.cc.ok.us
Wed, 15 May 96 13:43:18 CDT

Marion here again: I posted and Carlton replied (5-9-96):

Marion here again: I have one grammar book that states this but I am
having a discussion with another person who claims I am misunderstanding
the book. Goodwin states: The subject of a finite verb is in the
nominative. . .(page 197)."

>In addition, does this mean that the subject is either a nominative case
>(noun, pronoun, adjective, or articular participle).

Carlton replied:

Or noun clause or infinitive, that is any noun substitute.

Marion here (5-15-96) with another question. Are you saying that the noun,
pronoun, etc. must be in the nominative case? Or, can it be in any case?

Marion here again:

>It is also my understanding that the ending(s) of the finite verb are the
>remnants of Greek pronouns and that these endings function as the subject
>of the verb. If this is true does this mean that these endings are
>pronouns and they are the subject that is in the nominative case or does
it
>have to take another word in the nominative case?

Carlton replied:

A verb by itself in Greek can constitute a complete sentence. In the third
person singular the "he, she, or it" is sometimes unclear and is more
specific with a subject in the nominative singular (eg. ESTIN in Mark
13:28).

Mariion here (5-15-96) you seem to be saying that the subject that the
words "he, she, or it" have as an antecedent must be in the nominative
case. Again, in light of what was posted today (earlier) I am confused. I
now return to the former post.

Marion here again: Could the subject of a finite verb be in another case
(for example the genitive or dative cases)? I am speaking about a subject
that is not elliptical (explicitly stated). Would this rule be different
for an elliptical subject? (You seemed to answer this in the following):

>I understand that the subject could be either stated or elliptical but if
>it is elliptical must it be in the nominative case?

Carlton replied:

yes.

Marion here again (5-15-96) I am having trouble with the last post
(5-15-96) by Carlton and the post of (5-9-96).

Marion here again: Goodwin states: The subject of a finite verb is in the
nominative. . .(page 197)." In a post yesterday I asked if the quote of
Davis was a tautology I really meant was "is this quote [of Goodwin] a
tautology?"

If the finite verb endings are really pronouns and are the subject of the
verb and the subject of the verb must be in the nominative case it is
obvious that these verb endings are nominative case pronouns. Is this what
Goodwin and other writers are saying? Have I been wrong to look for a
nominative case noun, pronoun, etc. as the subejct of these finite verbs?
This is what I have been asking all along in this matter.
I certainly recognize that the case of a pronoun is determined by its usage
in the sentence. I have always understood that if a pronoun was the
subject of the sentence it must be in the nominative case. Have I been
wrong in this respect?

Yours in His service,

Marion R. Fox
Engineering Science Department
Rose State College
6420 SE 15th Street
Oklahoma City, Oklahoma 73110

Home:
4004 Twisted Trail Dr. SE
Oklahoma City, Oklahoma 73150-1910

E-mail MFox@ms.rose.cc.ok.us

Voice 405-733-7594 Home 405-732-1050

Marion R. Fox
Engineering Science Department
Rose State College
6420 SE 15th Street
Oklahoma City, Oklahoma 73110

Home:
4004 Twisted Trail Dr. SE
Oklahoma City, Oklahoma 73150-1910

E-mail MFox@ms.rose.cc.ok.us

Voice 405-733-7594 Home 405-732-1050