"will have been bound"
michael zarb (email@example.com)
Thu, 16 May 1996 17:42:37 -0700
I am new to this list. Have the tenses in Mt 16:19 and 18:18 been discussed
on this forum?
Are the periphrastic future perfects to be taken seriously?
What are the grammatical arguments supporting the usual translation, "will
be bound" and "will be loosed", instead of the more natural, i.e.equivalent
to classical rendering, "will have been bound" and "will have been loosed"?
I wonder whether the grammarians revising Blass-Debrunner-Funk are going to
include this matter.
Any help will be appreciated.
Cobble Hill, BC, Canada