>> The question is why are Christians over looking this obvious
FACT (John 14:16-17,26;15:26) and believe John meant "It"
instead when he did not use that pronoun once??? To say the
author did not know the Greek grammar is to say ignore what is <<
I'm not entirely certain I understand the question since John does use the
pronoun "it" in John 14:17:
to pneuma ths alhqeias, ... hoti ouv qewrei auto oude ginwskei
the spirit of the truth, ... because it (the kosmos) neither beholds it nor
The greek "auto" is neuter and refers to "to pneuma", also neuter.
Some english translations translate "auto" as "him" in this verse, but should
be "it." Romans 8:16 and 8:26 also use "it" in connection with the holy spirit.
Interestingly, the KJV translates "auto" as "it" in 8:16 and 26, but "him" in
John 14:17. It should be "it".
So the statement that Christians are overlooking this obvious fact is unfounded,
if I understand the question/ assertion correctly.