My sneaking suspicion, beyond any demonstrability, is that a Semitizing KOL
underlies this PASA, so that it means "each" or "each and every." My guess
is that Turner's notion makes a sharper distinction than the Greek can be
shown to imply.
>>(3) I think that QEOPNEUSTOS in this text really must be understood as
>>predicate to an implicit ESTI(N): "Every/all scripture is inspired and
>>useful for ..."
>Apparently various old versions omitted the KAI (Syr. Vul. Cop, Clement,
>Origen, Tertullian, Hilary, Ambrosiaster, Primasius) thus leading to
>QEOPNEUSTOS being treated attributively. Bruce Metzger says that "because
>the word KAI seems to disturb the construction, it is omitted in several
>versions." Textual Commentary.
>Does your comment mean that you find the predicative use more natural
>sounding/feeling in Greek than the attributive with KAI as an adjunctive
>Does not the predicative use seem to be affirming the obvious?
I'm looking at the text as determined by the editors of UBS4 (and 3). I
suspect that the omission of ESTI really underlies the omission of KAI in
the versions and the interpretation of QEOPNEUSTOS as attributive. Of
course the Koine is sloppier than Attic, which would have insisted upon an
additional article if QEOPNEUSTOS were to be deemed atributive: PASA GRAFH
hH QEOPNEUSTOS ...
Rather than affirming the obvious, I'd say that the predicative use of
QEOPNEUSTOS enhances the advice being given in this verse: "Each and every
scriptural passage is (after all) inspired, and therefore useful for ..."
>A K M Adam also raised the question of the meaning of GRAFH. Bauer (BAGD,
>GRAFH, s.v. 2), declares that GRAFH is used exclusively in the NT in the
>sacred sense of "Scripture" [meaning the OT]. G. Schrenk, TDNT 1, 751-761
>seems to agree though there are examples from Christian backgrounds which
>appear to use GRAFH more freely, quoting apocraphal works. (Barn. 16:5; 1
>Clem. 23:3; cf Barn. 4:3, Herm. Vis. 2:3:4: _hOs gegraptai_, "as it is
>written"). One would also want to consider passages using introductory
>formula (IF) but which do not quote the OT per se;
>1 Cor 2:9 (IF: gegramtai)
>1 Cor 15:45b (IF:gegramtai)
>Eph 4:8 (IF: legei)
>Eph 5:14 (IF:legei)
>1 Tim 5:18 (IF:H graphE legei)
>James 4:5 (IF: H grapE legei)
>Jude 14 (IF: apo adam henOx legOn)
>1 Tim 5:18 may be in reference to a pre-Lukan Saying of Jesus = Lk. 10:7.
>The question of whether GRAPH can mean an individual scripture or saying
>rather than the OT as a whole is also raise by Schrenk.
Well, I would only repeat what I have previously suggested, that more
questions seem to be asked of this verse than its Greek is ready to answer!
One might more profitably consult the Holy Spirit on some occasions than a
Greek language resource!
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University
One Brookings Drive, St. Louis, MO, USA 63130
firstname.lastname@example.org OR email@example.com