Re: John 16:15: EMA ESTIN -- why accusative?
Carlton L. Winbery (email@example.com)
Wed, 21 Aug 1996 12:50:11 +0400
>At 8:48 AM -0500 8/21/96, Jonathan Robie wrote:
>> This may be a very basic question, but why is the accusative used
>> in the phrase "EMA ESTIN" to say "is mine" in the phrase "all that
>> the father has is mine"? The complete verse is:
>> PANTA hOSA EXEI hO PATHR EMA ESTIN; DIA TOUTO EIPON hOTI EK TOU EMOU LAMBANEI
>> KAI ANAGGELEI hUMIN.
>> I don't think of the accusative as indicating possession, I thought
>> that's what we pay the genitive to do.
>It's NOT accusative, but nom. pl.;PANTA is the subject, EMA is the
>predicate adjective; what's accusative is hOSA in the subordinate clause
>hOSA EXEI hO PATHR. It's important to remember that the nominative and
>accusative of neuters are identical in the singular and again in the
>plural, and also, of course, that neuter plural subjects generally
>(although not altogether consistently in the NT) take a singular verb.
Jonathan, I would to Carl's explanation that EMA is from the possessive
adjective EMOS (in the lexicon) which means "mine."
Carlton L. Winbery
Prof. NT & Greek La College