John 17:19: question about perfect
Jonathan Robie (firstname.lastname@example.org)
31 Aug 96 22:42:03 EDT
I realized that my previous question hinged on the meaning of the perfect, and
looked through my grammars...but am still somewhat confused. The traditional
grammars say that the perfect expresses a completed act with continuing results.
Young's grammar questions this, saying that the perfect may point to something
past (Matt. 19:8), present (Matt. 27.43), possibly future (Matt. 20:23; John
5:24; Jas. 5:2-3), omnitemporal (Rom. 7:2) or timeless (John 3:18), and suggests
that we view it as static aspect, where the idea is a condition or state of
If I understand this correctly, then I've landed back in the tense vs. aspect
debate. Does John 17:19 imply making and keeping holy, or only making holy? Does
this depend on the school of grammar you follow?
I have been made confused and continue to be confused.