I have two questions to ask. In fact, one of my students asked me, but I do
not think I have answered him adequately.
Believe it or not, one of them concerns the perfect tense. What is the
exact force of the perfect tense *elhluquian* in Mk 9:1. Matthew has a
present participle *ercomenon*, whch refers to 'the son of man', not the
kingdom. I do not think that this category did not come up in the recent
discussion of perfect.
The other is *apolesei* in Mk 8:35. Am I supposed to take this a variant
form of subjunctive, or a case of the indicative future fomr used for a
subjuctive? What are opinions of those eminent Greek scholars?
Tokyo Chritian University