Mk1:24/Lk4:34 Why plural?
Stephen C. Carlson (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Mon, 09 Sep 1996 23:40:41 -0400
I've been looking at Mk1:24=Lk4:34 TI hHMIN KAI SOI. It's already
an interesting idiom in its own right, but I would like to hear any
comments as to why it's using the *plural* first person pronoun.
There is only one man, possessed by one unclean spirit, which is
doing the talking (cf. however, "Legion" and the herd of swine).
It would be easy to attribute the awkwardness of the shift to the
plural to Mark's Greek, but Luke, who's pretty good, has it as well.
Did the plural mean that the unclean spirit was talking for both
itself and the possessee? What's going on here?
Stephen C. Carlson : Poetry speaks of aspirations,
email@example.com : and songs chant the words.
http://www.mindspring.com/~scarlson/ : -- Shujing 2.35