Re: Mk1:24/Lk4:34 Why plural?

Jonathan Robie (
10 Sep 96 11:14:00 EDT

Stephen C. Carlson wrote:

> I've been looking at Mk1:24=Lk4:34 TI hHMIN KAI SOI. It's already
> an interesting idiom in its own right, but I would like to hear any
> comments as to why it's using the *plural* first person pronoun.

Robertson suggests that the spirit may be speaking for himself and for the man
he possesses. Makes sense to me.

> There is only one man, possessed by one unclean spirit, which is
> doing the talking (cf. however, "Legion" and the herd of swine).

Understood this way, there is one man and one unclean spirit, who are doing the