Technically I suppose this is probably true--but can it be demonstrated
that the noun understood is either XRONOU or KAIROU? Do we have examples
attested wherein the noun is explicit, such as MEXRIS hOU XRONOU ... ?
If not, then I suspect it would be more honest to say that the hOU is gen.
sg. but that the gender could be either masculine OR neuter.
I'm reminded of Joshua Whatmough vigorous assertion that there is no
"accusative absolute" in Greek (that rare use of the neuter ptc. of an
impersonal verb)--rather that it is really a "nominative absolute."
Unfortunately, since the participle is neuter singular, there's no way to
distinguish the nominative from the accusative form. I suspect the same is
true in this matter of hEWS hOU and parallels: unless you have a noun
attested in the expression, there's no way to be sure whether hOU is
masculine or neuter.
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University
One Brookings Drive, St. Louis, MO, USA 63130
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