Re: John 3:35
Edgar M. Krentz (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Wed, 16 Oct 1996 13:49:08 -0500
>Date: Tue, 15 Oct 1996 21:48:31 -0500
>To:Eric Weiss <email@example.com>
>From:firstname.lastname@example.org (Edgar M. Krentz)
>Subject:Re: John 3:35
>>John 3:35 hO PATHR AGAPAi TON hUION KAI PANTA DEDWKEN EN THi CEIRI
>>EVERY translation I've checked gives the second half of this verse as
>>something like: "...and He (the Father) has given all things into (in)
>>His (Christ's/the Son's) hand(s)."
>>Is there any reason why it can't be translated: "...and He (the Father)
>>has given all things (to the Son) by His (the Father's) hand."?
>>Is the DEDWKEN awkward if there is no person to whom or into whose hands
>>PANTA is given? Is EN THi CEIRI AUTOU an idiomatic phrase the means
>>"into his hands" "into/under his authority" when I guess I would expect
>>a preposition other than EN?
>One reaction. The verb DIDWMI in the LXX--and presumably in places in the
>NT--seems to take its connotation from the Hebrew NATHAN, which means (1)
>give and (2) place or put. I suspect that this is one of those places in
>John where one might suspect a kind of Semitism: "The Father loves him and
>has placed the universe (taking PANTA here as = TA PANTA) in his hand."
>Then this verse reflects the role of the LOGOS in John 1:1-18.
>Also, if CEIR were to be the father's hand here, I would expect the
>genetive of the reflexive pronoun, hEAUTOU of hAUTOU.
>These comments support what you read earlier form Carlton Winberry.
Edgar Krentz, New Testament
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