Re: Mark's Greek
David L. Moore (email@example.com)
Thu, 17 Oct 1996 23:21:08 -0400
At 10:49 PM 10/17/96 -0400, Stephen C. Carlson wrote:
>At 09:52 10/17/96 -0400, David L. Moore wrote:
>> I did a search of the NT and found that the idiom of IDE addressed
>>to a plural audience is at least as common in John as in Mark. Matthew, and
>>even Paul also employ the expression. Its absence from Luke, both in his
>>Gospel and Acts, seems to confirm my surmise that it is a Semitic idiom.
>Thank you for doing the legwork on this. I checked the references in
>my BDF and found the index of citations to be incompete, but some of
>these passages (not Mk16:6 though) are discussed in BDF:
>$ 144 n. . . . . The nom. with IDOU ($ 128(7)) and IDE (e.g. IDE
> hO AMNOS TOU QEOU Jn1:29 and often) is explicable on the
> basis that these are frozen imperatives like AGE FERE
> (IDOU is a particle already in Att.), a conclusion which
> follows from their combination with the plural (e.g. IDE
> AKOUSATE Mt26:65, AGE hOI LEGONTES Jm4:13; cf. 5:1, $ 364(2)).
> . . . .
>Section 127(7) explains that EINAI is omitted following IDOU and is
>a Semiticism on the model of Hebr. HINNEH, Aram HAH.
So the expression is dealt with in the grammars. Well! I'm still
hoping Carl will complete the TLG search. I'm wondering if IDE with a
plural referent will appear in the non-Semitic authors. I would guess it
will be in Philo.
David L. Moore Director
Miami, Florida, USA Department of Education
firstname.lastname@example.org Southeastern Spanish District
http://www.netcom.com/~dvdmoore of the Assemblies of God