Mon, 9 Dec 1996 22:38:45 +0000

As a newbie, I request your patience if this question has been dealt
with before, or if my words make little or no sense. Thank You!

My question has to do with the word *malista* (1 Tim 5:17, etc). It
came to my attention by reading the _correspondence_ section in the
Banner of Truth mag (nov 96). In a letter from Dr T. David Gordon
(Gordon-Conwell Theo Sem) he gives a *freeby* in the following words:
"I also thought I might mention an additional point regarding 1 Tim
5:17. T.C.Skeat argued some time ago that *malista* in many texts has
the meaning of 'namely' rather than 'especially'".

Now, I searched all the tools at my disposal, looked in all the NT
passages where the word appears (it does make better sense IMHO in
some of the references), yet I could find no one who advocated that
rendering of the word.

I will appreciate it if someone could help me in this regard. BTW,
does any one know anything about T.C.Skeat (who, when, where?).



ps. On the *aorist* subject, I just read D.A.Carson's _Exegetical
Fallacies_ where in p.68f he deals with the *abused aorist* and I
think pretty much says what Mari et al are saying under that subject.