> There's only one place to find "biblical Greek" and that's in the text!
> Perhaps the concern to know other verb forms are due to a need to look
> outside of the text in order to inform the text of its interpretation (I'm
> taking a wild guess here). Frankly, [personal opinion], you don't really
> need "outside" Greek to know that the text is saying "inside."
This seems to asssume that the full semantic range of a given verb
appears in its various instances in biblical literature. Not only is this
a questionable assumption with verbs which appear frequently in the NT or
LXX, but it hardly applies to hapax legomena. It is doubtful that the
meaning, say, of ANASTENAZW (a hapax at Mk 8.12) is available to us from
within Mark. My investigations of this word have shown that
commentators, working only with the context that the text of Mark
provides (and not the wider "outside" context of how the verb was
used by other non-biblical writers), are consistently wrong in
stating what ANASTENAZW signifies. They generally take it to mean "to
express anger or frustration". But in all of the "outside" instances it
NEVER means this. Rather it is used to signify and express "dismay",
"profound distresss that one is caught up in a painful situation
from which there is no escape".