I've come across a theory by Harold Riley, THE MAKING OF MARK: An
Exploration (Macon, Ga.: Mercer University Press, 1989) 215-18, that:
"When the word EUQUS corresponds to an equivalent word
in Matthew and/or Luke, it requires the sense of
'immediately.' When there is no corresponding word,
the more natural translation is in almost every instance
'then.' [Discussion of Mk6:25 27 counterexample omitted.]"
Naturally, Riley would like the reader to conclude that the
Griesbach Hypothesis is correct, but what I would like to know
is whether Riley correct on the data. If he is, then only
relatively few of Mark's EUQUS instances mean "immediately."
Is that what the article finds?
-- Stephen C. Carlson : Poetry speaks of aspirations, firstname.lastname@example.org : and songs chant the words. http://www.mindspring.com/~scarlson/ : -- Shujing 2.35