>> This might also be useful in explaining the apparant contradiction between 1
>> John 2:1 and 1 John 3:9. In 2:1, John says GRAFW hUMIN hINA MH AMARTHTE.
>> Aorist, hence with perfective sense: "I write to you so that you will not
>> commit sin".
TTD: Hey, Isn't 'will not' a future and not a 'perfect' in any kinda way?
In 3:9, John says that someone born of God OU DUNATAI
>> hAMARTANEIN. Present, hence with the imperfective sense: "can not habitually
TTD: what's wrong with '. . .is not able to sin"?
He also says that someone born of God hAMARTIAN OU POIEI. Present,
>> imperfective: "does not habitually sin".
TTD: wouldn't 'POIEI' be present indicative active, 3rd. pers. sing (thus,
not the imperfect[ive] at all?
TTD: I know that I am walking in on this conversation somewhat midway, but
apsect of Greek verbs excite me beyond your wildest imagination!!! I wonder
is it really possible to read these verbs as mentioned above. I do not tend
to think so, bit I will stay tuned.
Peace and Love,
Timothy T. Dickens
Please visit my website at:
Near Eastern specialist and Egyptologist. . .are too aware of the
isolationism often seen in traditional classics--or more precisely in
studies of Greek civilization--with its emphasis on the events of a
relatively short period, primarily in a particular exemplar of a single
group of cultures. Studies that appear to see fifth-century B.C.E Athens as
the defining experience of all civilization puzzle those whose interest lie
in other areas of the Mediterranean antiquity, and still more those
concerned with other regions of the world.
"On The Aims And Methods of Black Athena"
by John Baines in Black Athena Revisited