Carlton Winbery (email@example.com)
Fri, 3 Jan 1997 11:24:53 +0400
Denny Diehl wrote;
>with a question on MONOGENHS. In John 3:16 Jesus is
>described as "TON hUION TON MONOGENH". We have
>association with some who contend that should be
>translated: ONLY BEGOTTEN SON; and that it is wrong
>to translate it: ONE AND ONLY SON (NIV).
>?1) What is the derivation of MONOGENHS? And does
>that derivation help in understanding and translating this
>?2) What are the theological implications in translating
>it ONE AND ONLY SON as opposed to ONLY BEGOTTEN
>?3) In my Hatch and Redpath under MONOGENHS,
>Baruch 4:16 is listed as an occurrence of MONOGENHS,
>yet in my Septuagint that verse only has MONHN. Does
>anyone have MONOGENHS in that verse? (My copy of
>the Septuagint is Hendrickson, 1995 which came from
>Bagster & Sons, 1851).
I tried getting into Perseus and looking in LSJ, but it seems to be busy or
down at the moment. I would suggest that you look up the word in LSJ as
soon as you can. The URL is
The derivation of the word is from MONOS "only" and GENOS/OUS "kind." Thus
the usual meaning given in dictionaries is "only one of a kind" or "unique"
from the Latin uni + genitus.
Carlton L. Winbery
Fogleman Professor of Religion
Fax (318) 442-4996
Phone (318) 487-7241