>2. How should the participle be best rendered, as a habitual action,
>or as an imperative like 1 Pet. 3:1? What is the significance of the
>middle voice here?
I suppose you are talking about PROSERCOMENOI. It could indicate unending
action, but I would not make too much of the tense of participles.
>3. Is LIQON here an accusative absolute? If not, then how does it
>relate grammatically to the rest of the sentence?
No, no. Its in apposition to the pronoun hON. The closest thing to an
accusative absolute in the NT would be maybe Acts 26:3 GNWSTHN ONTA, "since
you are an expert about . . ."
>4. What is the force of the perfect participle? Is it reasonable to
>go with something forceful like, "having been completely rejected"?
the tense here probably emphasizes the completed action. It is part of the
contrast "by men, rejected but with God, chosen and precious."
This passage points up the very sophisticated use of participles in I
Peter. Those who learn to read Greek by reading the Johannines or even
Paul have trouble picking up the feel of the participles in I Peter.
Carlton L. Winbery
Fogleman Professor of Religion
Fax (318) 442-4996
Phone (318) 487-7241