One clarification: I don't mean that the whole idea of the Hebraic
model underlying X of Y of Z, where Y is abstract and both Y and Z
modify X, may be off-target; just that perhaps this model isn't
applicable to these genitives in Ephesians 1. Both Blass-DeBrunner
and Nigel Turner's "Syntax," the only two grammars I've consulted on
this question today, acknowledge the Semitic basis for this kind of
construction. But in my quick skimming, I did not pick up any
references to phrases including "glory" or "grace."