I am still wondering why the Dative LOGWi is used in both Mat. and Luke,
where we would expect the accusative. I'm sorry to post the same
question twice, but since it got no response, I, thought, perhaps, the
subject line which I used was misleading. Or perhaps some did not
receive the message. If it is just too inane a question to bother with
In the account of the healing of the centurion's servant, the centurion
requests "EIPE LOGWi" (Mat. 8:8, Luke 7:7). Mary Grosvenor calls this
a "cognate dative" and directs the reader to Max Zerwick's grammar where
he says. "This <<internal>> or <<cognate>> dative (so called because the
noun has the same root as the verb), although it is not entirely foreign
to classical usage, e.g. FUGH FEUGEIN, GAMWi GAMEIN, nevertheless
clearly rests in the NT on a Semitic basis." (Zerwick, p. 21)"
If this is influenced by the Hebrew absolute infinitive as Zerwick
indicates I would think that so common a notion as speaking a speech
would show up in LXX translation. The only occurrence which I can find
of a form of LEGW with LOGWi OR LOGOIS in Biblical literature is in this
one account of the words of the centurion in his request for healing of
the servant. This, along with the context, leads me to ask if this is
not a dative of means, highlighting the point of the centurion's
illustration of the authority of his own word. I.e. it is by
Jesus' word, that he expects his servant to be healed. EIPE LOGWi KAI
hIAQHSETAI (hIAQHTW Luke) "Say by word?" "Say with a word?" I'm afraid
I can't put in clear, normal English what I think is being said here.
Now, two questions.
1. I don't find the phrase LEGW with LOGOS in the dative in Biblical
literature. Does it occur in Gr. outside the LXX or NT?
2. Any comments on what use of the dative this is, or how I have
John M. Moe