Gal 3 and the curse

Bob, I agree with just about everything you said, but do you think Paul
would have brought this up in Gal 3 unless someone else had put it on
the table?  Obviously, I read with my own biases, but it seems to intrude
in chapter 3 into his discussion about the promise to Abraham, though Paul
certainly sees a connection because of v. 14 -- Christ has redeemed "us" from
the curse of the law so that the blessing of Abraham might extend toe the
Gentiles in Christ so that "we" might receive the promise of the spirit
through faith.

Two other questions.  Paul has convinced himself (because of his experience)
that his understanding of the curse is correct.  Is there any indication that
Jewish people who did not have his experience were convinced by his argument?

If Messiah is the end of the law, then why do Christians "fulfill the law?"
This opens up the whole debate about Rom 10:4.  I agree that Paul's
eschatology is the important focus here, but how did Paul view the law's
function in that system?  Clearly it didn't disappear -- Paul uses it for
all his scriptural arguments, even in Galatians.  And even in Gal. he tells
them to fulfill the law by loving their neighbor.

Again, I agree with all you said and I appreciate the comments.  

Tom Geer