Re: ho thronos sou ho theos

It appears that Glenn Wooden, Larry Hurtado (&c) and I are broadly in agreement
about the relative values of koine and classical Greek for NT exegesis.
Let's not get dragged into an argument when we're all fighting on the same
side.  But I am puzzled by Glenn's explanation of the text at issue.
He cites MT Ps 45.3 (sic) / LXX Ps 44.3:
" brkk 'lhym l`vlm (he-blessed-you God forever')
 eulogesen se ho theos eis ton aiwna (he-blessed you the God forever)."
and comments
"The word that is in apposition here is 'God' and it is in apposition to
the personal pronoun 'k' in the Hebrew which is translated as 'sou' and
'se' in the Greek.  The LXX solves the problem of the quote.  What it does
not solve, however, is whether the writer knew this.  I expect s/he did,
given the use of it in verse 3 of the Psalm and the use of it in Greek in

In my book neither 'lhym nor ho theos is in apposition to anything.  Each
is the subject of its verb. I don't see the "problem" to be solved (nor the
antecedent of the last two "it"s). Is he suggesting an *intended* parallel
between the two verses?  That the LXX observed and preserved it? We need
Emanuel Tov to help us on translation techniques in the LXX, but I'd rather
doubt such subtlety. Would you like to amplify, Glenn?

Regards, Douglas de Lacey, Cambridge