Re: "gift of the Holy Spirit"

Jim Hill asks: 

> Please comment on the meaning of the greek phrase which is translated "gift  
> of the Holy Spirit" in Acts 2:38.  Does it clearly mean either "gift which is  
> the Holy Spirit" OR "gift belonging to (from) the Holy Spirit"?

At a distance of some 2000 years from the time of writing, I doubt we 
will ever be able to say it "clearly" is the subjective or objective 
or possessive genitive.  I could be wrong, but it would take a great 
deal of effort to isolate all such examples from the NT and 
contemporary literature and devise a means of differentiating 
"clearly" between subjective and objectives.

Glenn Wooden
Acadia Divinity College
Wolfville, Nova Scotia, Canada