Porter 1989 claims that the NT has no examples of Ia conditionals in
the imperfect, which he calls 'assertions for the sake of argument.'
He has a tenseless analysis of Greek, which I am arguing against, in
part, in my thesis.  I was therefore wondering if past-referring
conditionals were less frequent in general.  Does anyone know the
proportion of the temporal reference in conditional sentences of the
New Testament or another contemporaneous (Greek!) text:  are
past-referring conditionals (of any class) disfavored?  Alternatively,
does anyone know where I might find such information?

Mari Broman Olsen
Northwestern University
Department of Linguistics
2016 Sheridan Road
Evanston, IL 60208