Re: Translation, Interpretation and John 1.1

I hate to go over old ground yet again, but perhaps some comment
ought to be made as a follow-up to Dan Gilbert, who wrote:
> David, The catagory that I "fall" under is "C".  This is due to the fact that
> I have translated it myself from the Greek and what the Greek says is
>  "In the beginning was the Word and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

With respect, what the Greek *says* is E)N A)RXH=I H)=N O( LO/GOS ...
(or probably more like ENARXHHNOLOGOS...; using a fairly
standard transliteration)
What the writer *meant*; or what the first readers would have
*understood*; or what might be an equivalent in today's
english, are very different things.  Your AV translation is one
possiblity, Dan, but only one, and one which itself will *say*
rather different things to different people (eg to some for whom
"with" entails distinction of essence and "God" is a common noun,
it would at best indicate ditheism!).

Regards, Douglas de Lacey, Cambridge UK.