john 3 and plural

In John 3:11 the text changes to plural, but only for one verse. Perhaps the 
writer was following a pattern; Jesus picks up on Nicodemus' "teacher" from 
verse 2 in verse 10, so he may have picked up on Nicodemus' plural in v. 2 as 
well in verse 11. Perhaps he was scoffing at the arrogance of Nicodemus. He 
may have referred to the Jews or to the Church and the Synagogue, as Raymond 
Brown suggested, but if so, it was for only one verse. I like the stylistic 
device better
Ralph Henson
Assistant Professor of Religion
Northeast Louisiana University
Monroe, Louisian 71209