Re: Hoping to shed more light.
> I also understand that the writers of the Greek NT word order can be
> and is moved around. The essence of my question is first, does an 'ou'
> automatically negate the very next indictative verb that it follows?
> And I ask this because I see in verse 15 that the Greek reads:
> "o gar katergazomai ou ginwskw (No Problem Here). ou gar o thelw touto
> prassw (here lies my question), all o misw touto poiw."
> Do you negate the verb 'to practice' or do you negate the verb
> 'to want'? It apprears that the English version negates the second verb
> of the sentence.
The negative negates the main verb here, i.e., "prassw". The clause
"o thelw" is an object of the verb "prassw" and is an explanation of
the word "touto".
For, I do not do 'this', (the 'this' being) that which I want (to
I hope this helps.
Acadia Divinity College
Wolfville, Nova Scotia, Canada