Re: Hoping to shed more light.

> I also understand that the writers of the Greek NT word order can be
> and is moved around.  The essence of my question is first, does an 'ou'
> automatically negate the very next indictative verb that it follows?
> And I ask this because I see in verse 15 that the Greek reads:
> "o gar katergazomai ou ginwskw (No Problem Here).  ou gar o thelw touto
> prassw (here lies my question), all o misw touto poiw."
> Do you negate the verb 'to practice' or do you negate the verb 
> 'to want'?  It apprears that the English version negates the second verb
> of the sentence.
>                                         Wayne


The negative negates the main verb here, i.e., "prassw".  The clause 
"o thelw" is an object of the verb "prassw" and is an explanation of 
the word "touto".

    For, I do not do 'this', (the 'this' being) that which I want (to 
I hope this helps.

Glenn Wooden
Acadia Divinity College
Wolfville, Nova Scotia, Canada