I am new to b-greek and also to the bible posting. Just today I have posted
a couple of things up on the bible forum. I guess I am going to be an avid
poster. Anyway my question concerns the the english translation from the greek
text of John 1:1. I am not a greek expert nor do I know any greek. I guess the
reason I bring up John 1:1 is because I talk to many Jehovah Witnesses and
their english translation is "In the begining was the Word, and the Word was
with God, and the Word was 'a god'." Now I have done some looking into in the
greek and came across this definition, if you will:
"A definte predicate nominative that precedes a verb does not have the
definite article. When a greek writeer wanted to stress the quality
of the person or thing that was in the predicate nominative case, he
would put it before the verb rather than after it."
Is this correct. Again, I know nothing about the greek and I am not an english
major. A lot of the above made no sense to me (well some), but please keep
this in mind if you choose to answer. Thanx for taking the time to read this
message. Look forward to hearing from you.