Re: Perfect Paraphrastic?

On Mon, 2 May 1994 abciiia@aol.com wrote:

> May 2, 1994
>    Yesterday, I was reading in John 17:19. Throughout Jesus' High Priestly
> prayer, Jesus prays using hina + subjunctive. However, in verse 19, the
> construction is hina + eivai (subjunctive) perfect participle. It looks like
> a paraphrastic, but I have heard about a subjunctive paraphrastic before. The
> text: kai huper autwn egw haiazw emauton, hina wsin kai autoi h(h)giasmenoi
> en alhqeia.
>    Is John trying to convey a perfect tense, but is unable to do so since no
> "perfect subjunctive" exisits?

Yes. The perfect tense subjunctive can be so formed, and is the most
common way, especially the the middle/passive. 

Since perfects are used to indicate a present condition based on previous
action, one can see the appropriateness of the use of the perfect tense.

 The translation is "And because of them, I
> sanctify myself in order that they also may sanctify themselves in the
> truth." Is the second hagizw understood in a perfect sense? If so, how is it
> translated in a perfect sense inside a purpose clause?

I suppose the point of the perfect tense here would be that "they be in
this sanctified condition." Grammars used to speak of "perfect of
resultant state. I hope this helps.

Richard F. Wevers
Calvin College