Re: JOHN 1:1

 >Some time back there was a discussion which offered 5 different ways of
 >translating the end section of John 1:1. I am considering the possibility
 >of a Theon/Theos distinction in this verse which imports Hebrew concepts
 >of a God subordinate to the High God as in Ps 45:6-7; Heb 1:8-9. Specifi-
 >cally I am exploring the possibility that John 1:1,18 may use Theon/Theos
 >in a way analogous to the Hebrew Eloah/Elohim. This might help explain
 >John 1:18. Theon is normally in the accusative but does not appear to be
 >so in 1 John 4:12, an exception which might be of significance.
 >Any suggestions or references in this area would be welcomed.

The first thing to explain to your friend is the difference between Theon 
and Theos.  Both words mean God equally.  The difference is Theon is in the 
accusitive case (it is the direct object of the sentence) and theos is in 
the nominative case (it is the subject of the sentence).  

In the English, word order within a sentence informs the reader of which 
words are the subject and which word is the direct object.  This is not 
true in the Greek.  The clues used to figure out the subject and direct 
objects of a sentence are called "case endings".      

The root of God in the Greek is : Theo  

The ending sigma (s) shows that Theos within a sentence is the subject 
of that sentence.  Thus, the case ending is nominative (singular 

The ending nu (n) shows that Theon within a sentence is the direct 
object. Thus, the case ending is accusative (singular masculine).  

AND if both nouns in a sentence both end in a sigma, as in John 1:1c, the 
definite article, ho, is called the "indicating subject", and its 
function is to point out to the reader that logos, not theos, is the 
subject of the clause.

I don't know if this will help your friend or not.  Keep us posted.