Re: Tenses

Like Carl, I'm not quite sure what is meant by the last question. Do you 
mean words like oida?

The meaning of oida is often given as `I know' with some note to the 
effect that the perfect really means the present and the pluperfect the 

I appreciate that there could be a historical argument against what I'm 
about to say, but it occurs to me as a (student) linguist that there is no 
need to treat the stem as having irregular tense meaning. Rather than 
treating the word as meaning `I know' why not `I come to know'. Quite 

	1) I have come to know (perfect)	=	I know (present)
	2) I had come to know (pluperfect)	=	I knew (aorist)

In light of this possibility, I have three questions:

	1) What is the actual stem (if oida is the perfect)?
	2) Does it *ever* occur other than in the perfect and pluperfect?
	3) Is there an argument against what I've just said?

Just thought I'd add to the discussion---keep things going. I hope my 
fellow West Australian, Tim Finney gets lots of responses to his 
excellent papyri query :-)

James K. Tauber, Undergraduate Student          ``Perplexed but not
Centre for Linguistics, UWA, Australia	             despairing''
E-mail: jtauber@tartarus.uwa.edu.au                    - Paul (2 Cor 4.8)
WWW:    ftp://tartarus.uwa.edu.au/pub/jtauber/main.html