john 1:1, bloedow

David Moore,

I'd like to make sure I understand the import of your post.  If the 
"anarthrous" form of the phrase under question means that the anarthrous 
nominative noun is descriptive/expressive in function, and not a direct 
equation of identity (as it would be if both nouns held the article, say, 
*ho theos estin ho logos), then am I right in understanding you to say 
that, in the strict sense, this phrase _cannot_ be translated, "The word 
was God"?  And I say this because to me (and I assume to other native 
speakers of English), the phrase "The word was God" means the word and 
God are directly interchangeable (as nouns and their referents).  If 
"theos" could only be understood as descriptive/expressive, then a 
translation like "The word was Godlike" or "The word expressed God" would 
be necessary.

Jonathan Bloedow (copy to his e-mail):

Why are you posting a political action request to a scholarly Greek Bible 
forum?  As far as I'm concerned, denying homosexuals employment and 
depriving women of health care is at the farthest remove from Christian 
testimony.  Anti-social and anti-pluralistic politics make few converts 
to a religion of godly love, except to put more bigots on the boat.  I 
seriously doubt even the facts of this outpouring of propaganda.  Please 
read the NT one more time (if you've read it once) and think about the 
good you could be doing to these people and to all.

-Greg Jordan