Re: Rom 1 and phusis

     I would pose two questions for Mr. Jordan's "transaltion:.  First, why is 
that in 1 COr 6, where we encounter a rare word, only the context can dictate 
what the word means, and other contexts andwords with possibly overlapping 
semantic domains are irrelevant, but in Roms 1, the context seems all but 
ignored while a wide net is cast to come up with possible meanings?  Tangled
up in this is the issue that the proposed translation continues to assert the
very case that needs proving, i.e., that Paul discerned a difference 
between heterosexuals doing homosexual things and true homosexuals.  I think
the most natural way to read the passage is to understand Paul as saying there
was no such thing as a homosexual in any sense until God delivered them over 
to an uncontrolled, God-alienated state (there's probably one long German 
word for that, but I don't know what it is).  Until that can be shown 
antecedently, I can't find justification for reading the passage in an
"unnatural" way which assumes it.  

Ken Litwak
Richmond, CA