Re: RE: Rom 1:26-27
If I may be permitted to interpret Litwak on "kinds of homosexuals"
(or at least provide a stereo effect) I would word it this way...
Neither in Paul, nor anywhere in the OT or NT is any moral distinction
ever drawn between on the one hand blameworthy homosexual acts performed
(a) in adultery, (b) for filthy lucre, or (c) as part of idolatrous worship,
and on the other hand homosexual acts sanctified by their being motivated by
erotic impulses/feelings/attitudes rooted in the unconscious mind.
I wouldn't recommend a retreat to the "love is all that's needed"
approach, because a lot of things the modern world thinks of as
victimless are not what Paul would classify as "love".
Patronizing prostitutes might be a good example. Paul condemns
this in 1 Cor 6 not because the prostitute is a victim of exploitation,
nor because the exchange of money corrupts something beautiful, but rather
because the christian patron becomes "one flesh" with the prostitute,
and because he defiles his own body, which is the temple of the Holy Spirit.
Does anyone suppose that Paul would, consistent with this expression,
view unmarried Christian sodomy as a pure expression of love, and
not as a defiling method of "becoming one flesh"?
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