Re: Luke 23:43
> The exegetical point that I recall seeing somewhere on this passage is
> that a placing of SHMERON before the comma would be pleonastic. I.e., would
> anyone say "today I say to you..." when it is more than obvious that, if one
> is present when the words are spoken, the speaker has spoken them "today"?
> David L. Moore
A pleonastic utterance is not necessarily w/o content.
In the present context, for example, one might think that the crucified
criminal would have to wait until Judgement Day, but in fact his salvation
is already certain. "Today I [am able to] say to you ...". I am not advocating
this view of the sentence, merely pointing out that the charge of redundancy
is not a forceful argument for the contray view.