Re: Divorce and Remarriage/Mat. 5:32

  Your suggestion of an Aramaic original is interesting, especially since
it "focuses on the person who has caused the divorce as the one really 
guilty as the cause of the adultery."  That is exactly what I was 
suggesting from the present Greek text.  Three questions:
   1.  So what is the possible Aramaic wording?
   2.  Does the LXX typically translate the Hiphil in this fashion?
   3.  What sources do you recommend for further study on Aramaic
       background to the Gospels?  
In fact, on point #3, I would be interested in seeing a long list of
books/articles on this topic.  I am aware of Matthew Black's book,
and a couple of things by J. Fitzmyer, but it has been a while since
I looked at anything here.
Gary D. Collier
University of Denver/Iliff School of Theology