Re: Q

I'm finding this discussion on Q and the 2-source hypothesis to be very
interesting.  While I think that they explain much of the Synoptic problem,
there still much that they don't explain well.  Specifically, Matthew and
Luke sometimes agree against Mark by adding identical material; in several
places, Mark reads more like a conflation of Matthew and Luke than selective
editing; and less probatively, Matthew and Luke agree in omitting Marcan
material.  Any assertion of the independence of Matthew and Luke and Marcan
priority should explain these occurrences.

I don't think these occurrences are rare, because in a cursory examination
I have found several in Mark 1 alone.  Thanks to Throckmorton's GOSPELL
PARALLELS for collating the passages.

How are the following explained?

[Throckmorton $1]
-	Both Mt & Lk move the introduction of John the Baptist before the
	Isaiah quote.  Mt3:1b-2 = Mk1:4 = Lk3:2b,3b.  (Mt3:2 is clearly a
	harmonization to Mt4:17 < Mk1:14.)
-	Both Mt & Lk remove the Mal3:1 quote; some MSS of Mark remove the
	problem by using "the prophets" vice "Isaiah the prophet." This
	is not hard to explain.  Luke also adds more verses from Isaiah.
-	The additional material in Lk3:2a (KAI HLQEN EIS PASAN [THN]
	PERICWRON TOU IORDANOU) shows up in Mt3:5b, but not in Mk1:5.

[$2, $3]
-	Mt3:7-10=Lk3:7-9 (Q material? why in the same place?  Is Lk3:10-14
	also Q but omitted from Mt?)

-	Mt3:11=Lk3:16 move Mk1:8a (baptize with water) before 7b (not worthy
	to stoop down and untie shoes).  Why?  Did both Matthew and Luke
	independently decide to wax chiastic?
-	Mt3:12=Lk3:17 (winnowing fork) (Q? why in the same place?)  Did Q
	contain a John the Baptist section which Mt & Lk preferred over Mk?

-	Mk1:13b (was with wild beasts) was replaced with Mt4:2=Lk4:2b
-	Similar temptation scenes were also added by both Mt & Lk.

Mk1:40-45 (healing a leper) [$45] is interesting because of suspiciously
identical emendations.  This is also true for Mk2:1-12 (healing a paralytic)

Stephen Carlson
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