I'm finding this discussion on Q and the 2-source hypothesis to be very
interesting. While I think that they explain much of the Synoptic problem,
there still much that they don't explain well. Specifically, Matthew and
Luke sometimes agree against Mark by adding identical material; in several
places, Mark reads more like a conflation of Matthew and Luke than selective
editing; and less probatively, Matthew and Luke agree in omitting Marcan
material. Any assertion of the independence of Matthew and Luke and Marcan
priority should explain these occurrences.
I don't think these occurrences are rare, because in a cursory examination
I have found several in Mark 1 alone. Thanks to Throckmorton's GOSPELL
PARALLELS for collating the passages.
How are the following explained?
- Both Mt & Lk move the introduction of John the Baptist before the
Isaiah quote. Mt3:1b-2 = Mk1:4 = Lk3:2b,3b. (Mt3:2 is clearly a
harmonization to Mt4:17 < Mk1:14.)
- Both Mt & Lk remove the Mal3:1 quote; some MSS of Mark remove the
problem by using "the prophets" vice "Isaiah the prophet." This
is not hard to explain. Luke also adds more verses from Isaiah.
- The additional material in Lk3:2a (KAI HLQEN EIS PASAN [THN]
PERICWRON TOU IORDANOU) shows up in Mt3:5b, but not in Mk1:5.
- Mt3:7-10=Lk3:7-9 (Q material? why in the same place? Is Lk3:10-14
also Q but omitted from Mt?)
- Mt3:11=Lk3:16 move Mk1:8a (baptize with water) before 7b (not worthy
to stoop down and untie shoes). Why? Did both Matthew and Luke
independently decide to wax chiastic?
- Mt3:12=Lk3:17 (winnowing fork) (Q? why in the same place?) Did Q
contain a John the Baptist section which Mt & Lk preferred over Mk?
- Mk1:13b (was with wild beasts) was replaced with Mt4:2=Lk4:2b
- Similar temptation scenes were also added by both Mt & Lk.
Mk1:40-45 (healing a leper) [$45] is interesting because of suspiciously
identical emendations. This is also true for Mk2:1-12 (healing a paralytic)
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