JOhn 15: Abiding
I have a question that may seem like I'm looking for a
"devotional" response, but I'm trying to ask a serious exegetical
question. If I wanted devotions, I'd look elsewhere. I'm
wondering, if we take seriously issues like verbal aspect,
semantic domain and its significance for "word studies" and
other relevant issues, how one would get at determineing the
meaning (not just the translation) of Jesus' statement in
John 15 about remaining (menein) in him, assuming that the
meaning of a passage requires more than just deciding how
best to translate it. What significance should be given to the
choice of verbal form? Not wanting to just do a superficial
"word study", what should one look at to try to get a hold on
possible background to menein? Thanks for any observations.
Note: I have a second question that is NOT about Greek, but
I am using this opportunity to ask it. It is only a question
for faculty members at graduate schools or seminaries in the
US. If that does not fit you, you need read no further.
Some of you at least (probably Sterling) would be happy to
know that I'm trying to get into a PhD program in NT next Fall.
One of the requirements of course is the GRE. What I want
to ask is this. Given that in general, I don't see
"GRE" vocabulary used in this or any other list, or in most
scholarly works I read, and when I do, I generally get the
feeling the author is being pedantic but not really saying
anything, to offer an animadversion, why would scholars, who
otherwise are very discriminating over the use of methods
and so forth, require the GRE of all graduate students when it
seems to be so far away in content from anything
required in graduate school? I especailly have to wonder this
given what I was told in my computer info systems degree
program that success on the GRE only has a 10% correlation
with success in graduate school. 10%? That's not a
correlation. That's pure random chance. There's probably
a higher correlation between walking ina forest in the rain and
being struck by lightening, and that doesn't require months of
studying and memorzing overly obtuse vocabulary or relearning
how to factor quadratic equations which I'm sure will have
great relevance to working in Luke-Acts. What's the deal?
Is it just because you suffered through it I should have to
suffer too? Besides which, this is my third time taking it.
My last set of scores were very good, but have
"expired". That's a pretty ridiculous concept. I didn't
become senile since turning 24 ten years ago. So what gives?
Why require that I submit to four hours of what my GRE study
guide describes as ETS kicking your head in for four hours?