Re: John 1:1


On Wed, 30 Nov 1994, Gregory Jordan (ENG) wrote:

> On Tue, 29 Nov 1994, Travis Bauer wrote:
> > Quite in opposition to making the use of Qeos more ambiguous, I think this 
> > verse supports my argument for John 1:1.  The fact that the Jews were ready 
> > to stone Jesus for calling himself divine is a testimony to the offense the 
> > Jews took at how Jesus, and John uses the term Qeos. 
> But you are blurring "divine" with "God" in the way that I showed is not 
> normal in English.  The "Jews" were offended by everything about Jesus, 
> it does not here prove that they understood him to be claiming to be YHWH 
> in person, especially since he clearly limits himself to being the son of 
> said YHWH, his father.  The son of a god is a god, but the son of God 
> could not be God if God is a person, unless one is entertaining a 
> paradox.  And again, the burden of proof is then on the paradoxical reading.

I do not believe that Jesus limits himself to being only the Son of 
Yahweh. In John 8:58 Jesus appears to claim the name of God - Before 
Abraham was, I am." The Greek is egw eimi - with the emphatic "I". Is 
this not the greek equivalent to YHWH - "I Am (what I am)"?

Leroy Huizenga
Jamestown College, North Dakota

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