John 1:1 and Mt. 5:9
En arch hn o logos,
In beginning was the Logos,
kai o logos hn pros ton theon,
and the Logos was with --- God,
kai theos hn o logos.
and God was the Logos.
makarioi oi eirhnopoioi, oti autoi uioi theou klhthhsontai.
Blesses the peacemakers, for they sons of God shall be called.
How is it possible to translate theos as "a god"
and theou in Matthew 5:9 as "of God" ?
If the decision is to render John 1:1c "a god",
mustn't the rule be carried out consistently
If theou is the genitive case of the same noun
(second declension) -- without an article, mustn't
it be rendered "of a god" to be consistent
with the rendering of John 1:1c ??
I am just a beginner here, if I made a mistake
in translation or in transliteration,
please let me know.