Re[2]: John 8:58

It bears repeating that the Greek present tense covers territory that 
includes the English perfect (simple) and perfect progressive.

In a time context that includes both past and present, English uses 
the perfect progressive    "She has been studying Greek for a year 
or the simple perfect       now"--look at the two time-adverbials, 
as an abbreviated form      for a year," past reference, and "now," 
or where the verb           present reference.
does not possess a         "She has been in Oaxaca for a year now." 
perfect progressive form, as is the case with "be."  Hence a time 
reference that points to the past, as in, PRI\N *A)BRAA\M GENE/SQAI, 
it is possible but not necessary to render the associated verb in the 

But be warned that the multiplicity of English tenses means that in 
selecting just one to render the Greek original you lose (for the 
Anglophone audience) all other possible senses which the Greek tense 
may touch on.

--David N. Wigtil.  Technology Assessment.  U. S. Department of Energy.
Graeca leguntur in omnibus fere gentibus,
Latina suis finibus exiguis sane continentur.   (Cicero, "Pro Archia")
(Greek works are read in practically all nations;
 Latin works are confined in their rather small territory.)
                     [ How things can change! ]
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