b-greek-digest V1 #62

b-greek-digest            Sunday, 31 December 1995      Volume 01 : Number 062

In this issue:

        Chrism and Baptism
        The Temptation of Deity
        theology or GNT? 
        Thiede's claims 
        Grammar in Mt 6 and 7 


From: Indepen <adc8@columbia.edu>
Date: Sat, 30 Dec 1995 09:42:00 -0500 (EST)
Subject: Chrism and Baptism

Actually, the moment in the Christ narrative most resembling traditional 
anointing comes in Mt. 26 or Luke 7, when a woman (or a sinning woman, in 
Luke) pours fragrant oil on Jesus's head (or feet, in Luke).  John's 
baptism, nor the Dove of the Holy Spirit bears much resemblance to the 
kingly anointing in the Hebrew Bible.

		A.D. Corn


From: Indepen <adc8@columbia.edu>
Date: Sat, 30 Dec 1995 10:20:13 -0500 (EST)
Subject: The Temptation of Deity

It seems to me that we won't get far with attempting to apply rational 
categories to the Trinity, especially as it concerns the question of 
Jesus's capacity to be tempted (tried).  Theologians have grappled with 
these issues for many centuries.  
	A related problem is the status of Satan.  God is good, and yet 
the tradition has it that God created a supernatural being who is evil and 
attempts to make humankind do evil.  That is not a paradox we can resolve 
	Can God sin?  By definition, no.  Earthquakes and cancers that
kill millions have to be accepted as God's will and not God's sins, even
though they cause the good people to suffer.  Likewise those acts of Jesus
that look and sound like sin, e.g., his cold and almost violent statements
to his mother ("Woman, what have I to do with thee?"  etc., or his violent
rather than peaceful dealings with the Temple moneychangers) cannot be
regarded as sin if we accept Jesus as God. 
	Rather than attempt to resolve what theology has never been able
to rationalize, and, recalling that this is a Greek Bible discussion
group, perhaps a more manageable topic would be the meaning of the word
"sin" in the Bible.  In Hebrew, KHATAUAU, in Greek hAMARTIA.  Are these
the same?  I don't know Hebrew so I can't comment for certain, though I
have the impresssion that it simply means breaking the law.  But the Greek
term has the sense of a missing of the goal, or a straying away from the
right path.  The emphasis is placed on aim, on the journey, the quest for
the goal, the good place.  Sin is what makes us miss our shot or gets us
off the track.


From: "Carl W. Conrad" <cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu>
Date: Sat, 30 Dec 1995 10:22:24 -0600
Subject: theology or GNT? 

It appears to me from recent posts that we are getting back into
theological discussion that isn't based in the least the Greek text of the
NT. While the questions may be interesting ones, I think they might better
be dealt with on Ioudaios-L, Elenchus or Bible, and leave this list free
for discussion of the Greek NT or the Greek of the NT. As always, the
primary reason for this is to avoid flame wars between persons of extremely
divergent theological perspectives that readily flare up when any one's own
ox gets gored.

Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University
One Brookings Drive, St. Louis, MO, USA 63130
(314) 935-4018
cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu  OR cwc@oui.com
WWW: http://www.artsci.wustl.edu/~cwconrad/


From: "Silvan N. Bongi" <ihs312@mail.erols.com>
Date: Sat, 30 Dec 1995 15:05:42 -0500
Subject: Thiede's claims 

I am new to the list and I was wondering if there has been any discussion 
concerning Thiede's claims that he has found first-century exemplars of 
both Matthew and Mark--Matthew from the Magdalen Papyrus and Mark from
the Qumran fragment 7Q5.  There is a brief overview of these claims in the
current edition of Bible Review (Dec 95).  Any one agree? Disagree?  Why?


From: Kenneth Litwak <kenneth@sybase.com>
Date: Sat, 30 Dec 1995 21:28:46 +0800
Subject: Grammar in Mt 6 and 7 

    Now that I've tried to figure this out from my grammars and BAGD
unsuccessfully, I'd like to pose some questions to the group.  I regret
that the library is closed this wek, so I couldn't get ahold of any
detailed exegetical commentaries either.
Mt 6:24:  I can't figure out why (enos and (eterou are genities.  
I don't see that the verbs used require genitives.I can't think
of a form of genitive that fits readily.  Suggestions?
M5 7:4 D&M says aphes ekbalw is a construction used for 
requests.  I guess that we could transalte it as "allow me to cast out"
but I'm really curious to know if this is a regular idiomatic use of aphihmi or
if this is an unusual construction.  If the latter, what is the most
technically correct, precise transaltion?
Mt 7:11 mh liqon epidwsei au.  This is a question, at least 
according to UBS punctuation.  So it looks like Jesus asks,
"Who of you does not give him a stone?"  Obviously, that's not right.
So, instead, I'm inclined to fall back on what I was told in 2nd yr. Greek,
that ou introduces questions expecting a positive answer and mh is
used for questions assuing a negative answer, although after the reading I've done
in Porter I'm not usre anything I learned in 3 years of Greek has any validity except paradigms).  Should that be the understanding of mh here?
"Who of you, if his son asks for bread, 
he will not give him a stone will he?  Of course not"  Is that how 
others would understand it?

   On an unrealted topic, does anyone know of an analytical lexicon or
a moorph-tagged text of the Apostolic Fathers?  Thanks.

Ken Litwak
Bezerkley, CA


End of b-greek-digest V1 #62


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