Search found 12 matches

by Alanpaul
January 9th, 2019, 7:05 am
Forum: New Testament
Topic: 2 questions on Eph 3:14-19
Replies: 7
Views: 3778

Re: 2 questions on Eph 3:14-19

I’d agree that τούτου χάριν refers back not forward; but there seems a good case for taking the reference to be not to verse 1, but to verse 13 (διὸ αἰτοῦμαι μὴ ἐνκακεῖν ἐν ταῖς θλίψεσίν μου ὑπὲρ ὑμῶν, ἥτις ἐστὶν δόξα ὑμῶν). The prayer in verse 14 would then follow on directly from the Paul’s hope t...
by Alanpaul
January 7th, 2019, 6:37 pm
Forum: New Testament
Topic: John 4:34… ἵνα ποιῶ …καὶ τελειώσω
Replies: 9
Views: 3266

Re: John 4:34… ἵνα ποιῶ …καὶ τελειώσω

This doesn't rule out purpose or final clauses. It shifts the focus to the function of ἵνα, independent of the semantics of the introduced clause. David R Palmer, the author of a modern (1998) translation John’s Gospel comes, I think, to a similar conclusion to yours in the way he renders 4:34. Ext...
by Alanpaul
January 7th, 2019, 12:18 am
Forum: New Testament
Topic: John 4:34… ἵνα ποιῶ …καὶ τελειώσω
Replies: 9
Views: 3266

Re: John 4:34… ἵνα ποιῶ …καὶ τελειώσω

Many thanks, Matthew, for directing me to Margaret Sim. It’s helpful to see ἵνα as a marker word in this context, and John 6:29 is particularly interesting since it echoes phrases that are also found in 4:34, albeit switched around a bit. It’s amazing how one thing leads to another, because your pos...
by Alanpaul
January 5th, 2019, 10:54 pm
Forum: New Testament
Topic: John 4:34… ἵνα ποιῶ …καὶ τελειώσω
Replies: 9
Views: 3266

Re: John 4:34… ἵνα ποιῶ …καὶ τελειώσω

Hi Sterling Yes, indeed. Thayer (Section 2d) identifies a number of examples of ἵνα clauses after substantives that have no sense of purpose (I guess we all feel like that from time to time). See https://biblehub.com/greek/2443.htm But he does not mention John 4:34. I am hoping to find examples that...
by Alanpaul
January 5th, 2019, 9:03 pm
Forum: New Testament
Topic: John 4:34… ἵνα ποιῶ …καὶ τελειώσω
Replies: 9
Views: 3266

Re: John 4:34… ἵνα ποιῶ …καὶ τελειώσω

Hi Mike, Hi Barry Thank you. I fully agree with both of you that the English infinitive constructions can take a purpose meaning. But this rule seems to apply particularly to a verb + to + infinitive construction (eg “I opened the window to get some fresh air). In such cases the purpose meaning is c...
by Alanpaul
January 5th, 2019, 6:57 pm
Forum: Introductions
Topic: Intro - Alan Paul
Replies: 1
Views: 3665

Intro - Alan Paul

Hello All My name is Alan Paul and I live in Hong Kong China. Now well into my 60s, I run a small consulting business, which allows me time to pursue other interests. After dabbling in NT Greek for a number of years, in 2013 I enrolled in a 2 year course run by the bible college of our local (Chines...
by Alanpaul
January 5th, 2019, 6:53 pm
Forum: New Testament
Topic: John 4:34… ἵνα ποιῶ …καὶ τελειώσω
Replies: 9
Views: 3266

John 4:34… ἵνα ποιῶ …καὶ τελειώσω

Dear All My enquiry relates to the meaning of ἵνα followed by the subjunctive aorist present in the following verse: John 4:34 reads: “….Ἐμὸν βρῶμά ἐστιν ἵνα ποιῶ τὸ θέλημα τοῦ πέμψαντός με καὶ τελειώσω αὐτοῦ τὸ ἔργον. I would translate this literally as follows: “My food is in order that I may do t...
by Alanpaul
October 26th, 2014, 6:18 am
Forum: Syntax and Grammar
Topic: εἷς ἐστὶν ὁ θεός
Replies: 9
Views: 4328

Re: εἷς ἐστὶν ὁ θεός

As for the grammar, I think it is a little un-Greek Dear Stephen Thanks for these further thoughts. I would certainly agree with you that the God of the Judeo-Christian tradition is in a unique class or category, from which other gods are excluded (cf the 1st commandment). And I would also concur (...
by Alanpaul
October 26th, 2014, 6:04 am
Forum: Syntax and Grammar
Topic: εἷς ἐστὶν ὁ θεός
Replies: 9
Views: 4328

Re: εἷς ἐστὶν ὁ θεός

There is also Rodney J. Decker's, Koine Greek Reader that has as his translation on page 216, "M.1.1. First of all, believe that God is one, ..." Dear Bryant Thanks for the note on Rodney J Decker's Reader. He uses the Michael Holmes translation, which I believe is probably better than th...
by Alanpaul
October 24th, 2014, 12:30 am
Forum: Syntax and Grammar
Topic: εἷς ἐστὶν ὁ θεός
Replies: 9
Views: 4328

Re: εἷς ἐστὶν ὁ θεός

I'd like to add an observation that εἷς is a general sort of word. A more specific word is μονάς (-άδος, ἡ) monad , (a self-contained being at the exclusion of others), which would exclude the understanding of the εἷς as being a τριάς (-άδος, ἡ). That is to say that the internal nature of God is no...

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