Search found 59 matches

by Philip Arend
January 30th, 2024, 8:50 am
Forum: Greek Texts
Topic: Stromata 2.15.70.3-4
Replies: 3
Views: 27429

Re: Stromata 2.15.70.3-4

Below is BrillGE's range of meaning for the usage of συγγνώμη. From this it seems that a slight difference in nuance might be that this word can reflect a note of kindness and sympathy. I don't have time to look more closely at aphesin. At any rate Clement is the most frequent quoter of Proverbs amo...
by Philip Arend
August 21st, 2023, 9:21 am
Forum: Word Meanings
Topic: Meaning of “πρηνὴς γενόμενος” in Acts 1:18
Replies: 4
Views: 31224

Re: Meaning of “πρηνὴς γενόμενος” in Acts 1:18

In answer to your question, the main semantic core of πρηνής seems to revolve around falling down or forward, or lying on ones face after having done that. I see no evidence that it was used as a shorthand or idiom for suicide. Biblical accounts of events are terse. They don't describe many details ...
by Philip Arend
August 21st, 2023, 6:28 am
Forum: Word Meanings
Topic: Meaning of “πρηνὴς γενόμενος” in Acts 1:18
Replies: 4
Views: 31224

Re: Meaning of “πρηνὴς γενόμενος” in Acts 1:18

Taking a look at The Cambridge Greek lexicon, this word goes all the way back to Homer, where it refers both to those falling "head long" in battle, or those lying prone. Luke uses the Ionian form of πρᾶνής. Here is CGL entry for πρᾶνής related to people: "1. On the face or belly (opp...
by Philip Arend
December 5th, 2022, 8:05 am
Forum: New Testament
Topic: τίς in Titus 1:6
Replies: 5
Views: 31238

Re: τίς in Titus 1:6

UBS Translation commentary: "This verse begins with if any man (better “if anyone”). It makes no sense to translate the Greek literally here, since what comes out is somewhat ungrammatical, if not unclear, as RSV shows. In fact what the text seems to be saying is that Titus can appoint people t...
by Philip Arend
November 25th, 2022, 4:17 am
Forum: Grammar Questions
Topic: Aorist Participle's in 2 Peter 2.4-6
Replies: 3
Views: 29590

Re: Aorist Participle's in 2 Peter 2.4-6

Hi David, Actually, the Cambridge Greek Lexicon translates the part of speech ἀὀριστος (aorist) as imprecise-ambiguous. Grammatically it is "unmarked", indicating that an event happened without being marked for imperfective (continuous/iterative) or for perfective (completed) action. So, i...
by Philip Arend
October 14th, 2022, 3:29 am
Forum: Other
Topic: Zoom discussion groups of Greek linguistics
Replies: 16
Views: 58085

Re: Zoom discussion groups of Greek linguistics

It doesn't look like anyone else wants to zoom. Perhaps written discussion on the B-Greek forum would garner responses from those with more expertise?
by Philip Arend
October 12th, 2022, 12:24 am
Forum: Other
Topic: Zoom discussion groups of Greek linguistics
Replies: 16
Views: 58085

Re: Zoom discussion groups of Greek linguistics

I would be interested in working through Steve Runge's article. The trajector/landmark paradigm seems helpful, but I would like to play around with the ideas to better understand asymmety, construals etc. How much insight can they give to the meaning of the text? In terms of time, I think smaller ch...
by Philip Arend
June 27th, 2022, 7:17 am
Forum: What does this text mean?
Topic: Galatians 4:4
Replies: 13
Views: 22982

Re: Galatians 4:4

Learning the function of participles is one of the first helps to tearing down a Greek sentence. In general participles offer addition information about the events which the indicative verb(s) describe. You can find the range of meanings participles provide in first year Greek textbooks. Also the mi...
by Philip Arend
December 9th, 2021, 11:07 am
Forum: New Testament
Topic: John 1:49 (the) King of Israel
Replies: 6
Views: 4185

Re: John 1:49 (the) King of Israel

That is indeed the case. Though, on the lighter side, it seems the chief priests and Pilate were also at odds about the use of the article:

John 19.21 ἔλεγον οὖν τῷ Πειλάτῳ οἱ ἀρχιερεῖς τῶν Ἰουδαίων Μὴ γράφε Ὁ βασιλεὺς τῶν Ἰουδαίων ἀλλ’ ὅτι ἐκεῖνος εἶπεν Βασιλεύς τῶν Ἰουδαίων εἰμί.
by Philip Arend
December 9th, 2021, 5:23 am
Forum: New Testament
Topic: John 1:49 (the) King of Israel
Replies: 6
Views: 4185

Re: John 1:49 (the) King of Israel

It is also possible that John might have been following a basic convention mentioned by Eleanor Dickey in "Composition and Analysis of Greek Prose": "Greek does not use the article with a few idiosyncratic words that, because they refer to something unique and well known, are consider...

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