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by PhillipLebsack
January 29th, 2018, 9:54 am
Forum: Other
Topic: Textual Critical Issue: John 1:28 Bethany or Bethabara?
Replies: 3
Views: 7324

Re: Textual Critical Issue: John 1:28 Bethany or Bethabara?

Hey Stephen, thanks for your response. This is rather problematic for me. You see, the text (cf. Matthew, Mark) says that John was baptizing in the wilderness of Judea , and in the Gospel of John it says it was in the Jordan - he's more specific it seems. The only place where these two seem to overl...
by PhillipLebsack
January 29th, 2018, 6:29 am
Forum: Other
Topic: Textual Critical Issue: John 1:28 Bethany or Bethabara?
Replies: 3
Views: 7324

Textual Critical Issue: John 1:28 Bethany or Bethabara?

In John 1:28 there is a textual variant. The NA28 has Bethany as the main reading. (In my opinion, I would also have said it was the original reading given the manuscript evidence.) A few questions for anyone who is into textual criticism: 1. Could Bethabara actually be the original reading in John ...
by PhillipLebsack
January 28th, 2018, 10:18 am
Forum: Other
Topic: NT quotations of the Old Testament
Replies: 5
Views: 7911

Re: NT quotations of the Old Testament

The Commentary on the New Testament Use of the Old Testament is an interesting and very useful work, and in essence serves the purpose... but it isn't exactly what i'm looking for... I'm looking more for a simple compilation (for lack of a better word) of the quotes and how they compare/contrast in ...
by PhillipLebsack
January 28th, 2018, 5:43 am
Forum: Other
Topic: NT quotations of the Old Testament
Replies: 5
Views: 7911

NT quotations of the Old Testament

Are there any articles on the NT quotations of the Old Testament and how they differ from one another in terms of content, grammar, etc?
by PhillipLebsack
January 27th, 2018, 7:09 am
Forum: Introductions
Topic: Phillip's Humble Introduction
Replies: 1
Views: 1048

Phillip's Humble Introduction

Hello. My name is Phillip and i'm 19. Like a certain Ignatius a long time ago once said, I would consider myself as a student. Always growing. Always seeking to develop a deeper and more thorough knowledge of the truth. Though I will likely keep that mindset for years to come, I fervently hope that ...
by PhillipLebsack
January 24th, 2018, 10:37 am
Forum: What does this text mean?
Topic: John 1:17 HUGE possible difference in interpretation
Replies: 11
Views: 2889

Re: John 1:17 HUGE possible difference in interpretation

Jonathan Robie wrote:
January 24th, 2018, 9:28 am

Yes, I think you are misinterpreting ἐδόθη when you say "Moses gave the law". It's a passive verb. Let's change it to an active verb and ask this question:

τίς ἔδωκεν τὸν νόμον διὰ Μωϋσέως;
So, the Law was given through Moses by someone - God.

But, what's the point?
by PhillipLebsack
January 24th, 2018, 9:19 am
Forum: What does this text mean?
Topic: John 1:17 HUGE possible difference in interpretation
Replies: 11
Views: 2889

Re: John 1:17 HUGE possible difference in interpretation

I think I made a typo in my last reply. I meant "through" and not "to" where I said "The Law given through Moses." διὰ should be translated as "through" because the following in both cases are genitives. It's just serving to tell us who gave the Law - Moses, and how grace and truth came - through Je...
by PhillipLebsack
January 24th, 2018, 7:07 am
Forum: What does this text mean?
Topic: John 1:17 HUGE possible difference in interpretation
Replies: 11
Views: 2889

Re: John 1:17 HUGE possible difference in interpretation

After giving this some more thought, I think what you said about the juxtaposition being created is the best way to interpret it. Let me restate what you're saying in other words, and please correct my understanding if i'm wrong... You're saying that the text is saying "The Law being given to Moses"...
by PhillipLebsack
January 23rd, 2018, 11:47 pm
Forum: What does this text mean?
Topic: John 1:17 HUGE possible difference in interpretation
Replies: 11
Views: 2889

Re: John 1:17 HUGE possible difference in interpretation

I don't see that big a difference, definitely not a huge one, but translating this with a 'but' feels a bit strong to me. In the Greek text you just cited, this is simple apposition with no word to indicate the 'but'. I just checked Alan's site to see if some of the translations were using a text w...
by PhillipLebsack
January 23rd, 2018, 6:17 am
Forum: What does this text mean?
Topic: John 1:17 HUGE possible difference in interpretation
Replies: 11
Views: 2889

John 1:17 HUGE possible difference in interpretation

John 1:17 ὅτι ὁ νόμος διὰ Μωϋσέως ἐδόθη, ἡ χάρις καὶ ἡ ἀλήθεια διὰ Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ ἐγένετο. Should this be read as creating a contrast between the Law of Moses and the grace and truth of Jesus Christ, where the ὅτι is following up what is said in the previous verse... "For the law was given through Mo...

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