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by Scott Lawson
February 24th, 2012, 10:54 am
Forum: New Testament
Topic: John 8:25
Replies: 60
Views: 13134

Re: John 8:25

Such a sarcasm is not impossible for Jesus, I hadn’t thought of it as sarcasm, but.... but it does not fit the context at all (see the next few sentences). John 8:26-27 Chastisement: 26 I have many things to speak concerning you and to pass judgment upon. Plain speech: As a matter of fact, he that ...
by Scott Lawson
February 23rd, 2012, 11:53 am
Forum: New Testament
Topic: John 8:25
Replies: 60
Views: 13134

Re: John 8:25

Καλὸς κ’ ἀγαθός, I'm beginning to think that having come full circle (back to the beginning) in the discussion of who he was, that his response to those who refused to accept what he was so directly saying about himself, was couched as a double entendre. If they won't accept clarity give them a puzz...
by Scott Lawson
February 22nd, 2012, 5:29 pm
Forum: New Testament
Topic: John 8:25
Replies: 60
Views: 13134

Re: John 8:25

Mark Lightman wrote:as if the text had the nominative
Under the entry ἀρχή 1 a, BDAG states: τὴν ἀ. J 8:25, as nearly all the Gk. Fathers understood it, is emphatically used adverbially = ὅλως


Scott
by Scott Lawson
February 20th, 2012, 5:28 pm
Forum: New Testament
Topic: John 8:25
Replies: 60
Views: 13134

Re: John 8:25

Far from always actually. And BDF does not seem to imply what you said either. David, the statement is not mine but comes directly from BDF. Perhaps Carl would be so kind as to print the statement which is found at § 300 (1) (b) in BDF. Why the statement is so dogmatic is beyond me. And my purpose ...
by Scott Lawson
February 19th, 2012, 10:34 pm
Forum: New Testament
Topic: John 8:25
Replies: 60
Views: 13134

Re: John 8:25

But can you give the references for places where the Hebrew interrogative pronoun was rendered using "οτι" in the LXX? Perhaps someone can cut and paste the relevant section: BDF §§ 300, 2 introducing a direct question pages 157-58. These are some of the texts cited but the discussion is involved: ...
by Scott Lawson
February 19th, 2012, 3:41 pm
Forum: New Testament
Topic: John 8:25
Replies: 60
Views: 13134

Re: John 8:25

Stephen Carlson wrote:No, it should be δοκεῖτε because it is an epsilon-contract verb.
Stephen,

Thanks so much.

Scott
by Scott Lawson
February 19th, 2012, 12:58 pm
Forum: New Testament
Topic: John 8:25
Replies: 60
Views: 13134

Re: John 8:25

guess I’m mildly curious how rare this usage is outside of Mark. Mark! Did I get the accent right in δοκειτε? BDF indicates that the use of ὅτι as a direct interrogative is especially Markan and that variants are corrections introduced from parallel passages thus bringing the Greek of Mark closer t...
by Scott Lawson
February 19th, 2012, 12:36 pm
Forum: New Testament
Topic: John 8:25
Replies: 60
Views: 13134

Re: John 8:25

Could it be that in all these cases there is an ellipsis meaning "[why is it] that ..."? Also I noticed that a variant of Mark 2:16 reads "... ελεγον τοις μαθηταις αυτου τι οτι μετα των τελωνων και αμαρτωλων εσθιει και πινει", which seems to indicate that "οτι" is not inherently interrogative other...
by Scott Lawson
February 19th, 2012, 2:48 am
Forum: New Testament
Topic: John 8:25
Replies: 60
Views: 13134

Re: John 8:25

I also have not seen "οτι" used as an interrogative. Do you have any clear examples? Robertson cites 1 Chronicles 17:6 as an example, ὅτι οὐκ ὠκοδομήσατέ μοι οῖκον κέδρινον; (R. 729) He also points out that Mark 2:16 is accepted by W.H. and Nestle as interrogative. (R. 730) Mark 2:16 … ἔλεγον τοῖς ...
by Scott Lawson
February 18th, 2012, 3:58 pm
Forum: New Testament
Topic: John 8:25
Replies: 60
Views: 13134

John 8:25

Ὅστις as a direct interrogative is confined in the Christian Greek Scriptures to the neuter ὅτι. (BDF §§ 300) It is used to introduce a direct question with the meaning “why.” Though Blass feels the use of ὄτι as a direct interrogative is “quite incredible”, Robertson finds Blass’ remark to be impos...

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