Search found 1550 matches
- September 22nd, 2011, 6:57 am
- Forum: Writing Greek
- Topic: Westminster Μικροτέρα Κατήχησις
- Replies: 9
- Views: 6092
One of my lecturers at Bible College told me of a time that he and another lecturer composed an exam for Romans in which the passages proffered for translation were randomly selected from the church fathers. Apparently the students sat in stunned disbelief straining at these passages until somebody...
- September 18th, 2011, 6:38 am
- Forum: Grammar Questions
- Topic: First Person Imperative
- Replies: 5
- Views: 2422
Greetings, Robert. I believe you would simply use the second person imperative -- in your English example, it's as though you are talking to yourself in the second person. Somewhere I have seen examples of this in Greek, but can't think of an example right now.
- September 14th, 2011, 9:37 pm
- Forum: What does this text mean?
- Topic: 1 Peter 1:1-2
- Replies: 3
- Views: 1010
I found an article that addresses the basic issue I raised. It is at: Bibliotheca Sacra vol 137 Jan-Mar 1980 Designation of the Readers in 1 Peter 1:1–2 D. Edmond Hiebert From the article: Peter may here have intended [ἐκλεκτοῖς] as a noun, but the grammatical structure does not suggest it. It is m...
Lest what I wrote previously be misunderstood, I don 't believe that your explanation has any basis in the Greek itself: the construction involving διὰ + acc. means that a reason is being offered. That there are different kinds of reasons is something that we didn't have to learn from Aristotle's a...
I agree with Barry that the two διά's here have marginally different forces. However, to explain this, one would either have to translate, which is treasonous, or one would have to use meta-language jargon like "prospectively" and "retrospectively," which is a different kind of treason. Thanks, Mar...
Rom 4:25 ὃς παρεδόθη διὰ τὰ παραπτώματα ἡμῶν καὶ ἠγέρθη διὰ τὴν δικαίωσιν ἡμῶν. Am I missing something? διὰ τὰ παραπτώματα and διὰ τὴν δικαίωσιν both are instances of διὰ with the accusative and the accustive noun in each is qualified by ἡμῶν. It would seem to me that the same usage of διὰ is invol...
I'm interested in comments on the two uses of διὰ. Syntactically, they look like they should be parallel, but conceptually, not so much. Thoughts?Rom 4:25 ὃς παρεδόθη διὰ τὰ παραπτώματα ἡμῶν καὶ ἠγέρθη διὰ τὴν δικαίωσιν ἡμῶν.
- September 2nd, 2011, 10:50 am
- Forum: Syntax and Grammar
- Topic: Time in the conditional clause
- Replies: 5
- Views: 1951
In your proposed example, ancient Greek would use an aorist indicative in both clauses, and ἃν would be prefixed or added to the aorist of the apodosis. εἰ ἐμελήτησα, ἐξέφυγον ἂν τὸ ἐλέγχος. It's clear from the formulation which action must have come first (consequences don't ordinarily precede cau...
I understand Barry. My question pertained to the grammar of the Greek specifically the phrase εἶναι ἡμᾶς, the infinitive followed by 1st person plural in the accusative (or any pronoun in the accusative, for that matter). I just didn't exactly know how to form the question. I was basically wonderin...
Good response by Eeli. I would summarize by saying that ἀλλά nearly always adversative -- it's a big but, so to speak, which is what the text means by "stronger," it shows a specific ("strong") contrast. δέ has a much wider usage and is primarily a discourse marker -- with μέν in the preceding claus...